In any other location on the forums, that would make sense. This is politics, though. I'm pretty sure about 2/3 of the people here don't even know there's a game attached to the forums that they can play between posts.
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Imperial Forum → Posts by The Great Eye
In any other location on the forums, that would make sense. This is politics, though. I'm pretty sure about 2/3 of the people here don't even know there's a game attached to the forums that they can play between posts.
The Great Eye wrote:And keep in mind... I have given you one massive out: CITE SOURCES. Sources differentiate characterization from fact. If you can point out... with links to reputable sources... instances that justify the factual statements made within the countries relevant to our discussion (i.e., no, a source about cannibalism in Ancient Rome doesn't count), then you're at least partially in the clear (although it would still be incredibly insensitive to apply the cannibalism label generally if only a few countries in the list engaged in the practice... especially if the countries engaging in such didn't happened to be the lowest per-capita GDP countries on the list).
Here is YOUR 'out': What sources are you asking for exactly?
I will move on to your points about Japan after your response to this question.
It was based on the belief that you were defending that some of the nations I was discussing were engaged in cannibalism. You're not, so it's irrelevant. Feel free to skip.
Unless you're going to add something new, you might as well skip to the Japan thing. That being said... you not only stand by the wording of your statement (without even an apology for word choice or lack of clarity), but subsequently turn around and conjure racism charges of your own. I pointed out a problem with a statement... a thing that can be edited, apologized for, and corrected. You've decided to attack me personally. Do NOT expect this to be me backing down on the general argument raised.
Sorry, there was quite a bit to write and because this is such a sensitive issue, I wanted to take care to ensure I selected my words appropriately.
Zarf wrote:Parents choosing to raise a child specifically to be used as food isn't even a remotely efficient use of food.
How is it racist?
As for an example, I was thinking Rome's societal collapses: it wasn't that slaves were intentionally still having children for the purpose of selling them as food to the rich; it was more they were 'encouraged' by their owners to give up their children to be sold by their owners (in many cases probably as food) and were probably 'encouraged' to have more children by their owners for this purpose.
Again, how is this racist? I'm simply stating how things were.
There are two separate cases of racism in the statement you cited. The first is "cannibalism exists in this pile of countries we're talking about, so let's talk about other regions" without providing sources. The second, more egregious instance, is insinuating that the cannibalism was a premeditated, calculated part of the society's cycle of fertility such that it would explain high fertility rates in some of the described countries... again, without providing sources.
It's racist because perpetuating such a decisionmaking process as a thing occurring among people in the most impoverished nations:
A: Is factually incorrect absent some evidence to the contrary, as the food required to raise a child would be more than the food that would even be obtained from such a process (i.e., it would not actually be effective to do what was described in times of desperation), and
B: Creates a false impression that would, if accepted as true, justify readers to view those poor people as something less than human. After all... if those people are willing to slaughter their own children like cattle, not out of a momentary act of desperation, but as part of a calculated process of filicide that parents opt to engage in against their own children over the course of months... the average reader may conclude that the problem isn't simply poverty, but that those individuals (the poor you characterize) are simply morally depraved, beyond help. "They're cannibals" is one of the first lies that has historically been spewed to dehumanize those in impoverished regions of the world and subsequently justify European imperialism. Not that I'm saying cannibalism doesn't exist... but you have to pull evidence and be damn specific when hurling things out like that.
Which brings me to the "example" of what you were talking about.
First of all, an example that seems more tame should NOT justify the sentence beforehand, and Trump proves why. If you make a comment that could easily be incendiary, then follow it up with "Oh, no, I mean this much more tame thing" without apologizing for the first statement, you still justify the wording of the first statement... and justify those who want to cling to that first statement doing so. It's your responsibility to support your statements with facts when discussing such sensitive issues.
Second, your example is, ridiculously unlikely to be what was meant in this discussion because a spontaneous decision to engage in cannibalism wouldn't affect the fertility rate. If a parent raised a kid to age 8, and was later "encouraged" by the rich to give up their children, that would have absolutely no effect on the fertility rate because that child has already been born. A parent raising a child who lives to age 80 has the same effect on the fertility rate for the year the child was born as a parent who raises a child that will die at age 5.
Third, my own look into historical cannibalism didn't find this in Ancient Rome. I could easily be wrong on this, so linky?
Fourth... and possibly the biggest problem... your example is not relevant (and, in fact, justifies every accusation of racism I have levied) because your example doesn't talk about ANY country that was in that discussion. We were specifically talking about countries in the modern world that had the highest fertility rates... Afghanistan, Somalia, etc. The example you can cite for your scenario is Ancient Rome. Not only is it not relevant, but you are applying behavior to people in modern impoverished nations because "Oh, it was done once in Ancient Rome so it must also be done here." Moreover, because THIS was your example... even if sources are found that would satisfy the above concerns, they are arguably irrelevant because if your statement was rooted in facts about the countries in question, why cite to this weird scenario in a 2,000 year old country that wasn't part of the discussion instead of using those facts you knew about?
And keep in mind... I have given you one massive out: CITE SOURCES. Sources differentiate characterization from fact. If you can point out... with links to reputable sources... instances that justify the factual statements made within the countries relevant to our discussion (i.e., no, a source about cannibalism in Ancient Rome doesn't count), then you're at least partially in the clear (although it would still be incredibly insensitive to apply the cannibalism label generally if only a few countries in the list engaged in the practice... especially if the countries engaging in such didn't happened to be the lowest per-capita GDP countries on the list).
And a lot about what you say about Japan is a myth / represents a small portion of the population. There might be more economic stability but not as much as you imply.
Think late 80's up to 2010, the so called "Lost 20 Years":
In the late 1980s, abnormalities within the Japanese economic system had fueled a speculative asset price bubble of a massive scale.[...]Trying to deflate speculation and keep inflation in check, the Bank of Japan sharply raised inter-bank lending rates in late 1989.[11] This sharp policy caused the bursting of the bubble and the Japanese stock market crashed.[...][...]Many Japanese companies replaced a large part of their workforce with temporary workers[...]who had little job security and fewer benefits. As of 2009, these non-traditional employees made up more than a third of the labor force.[...]Over the period of 1995 to 2007, GDP fell from $5.33 to $4.36 trillion in nominal terms,
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lost_Decade_(Japan)
Initially, when the credit bubble burst and interest rates rose, you had salary-men in the hundreds of thousands (or maybe even millions) literally flinging themselves out their office windows.
There are other systemic factors, though: housing prices, commute times, culture, especially workplace culture, etc.. - there are countless systemic stressors.
Again, fertility rates aren't caused by solely by economic instability.
My take on Japan is that people don't tend to marry or have children because there are too many systemic stressors, with economic instability still causing a major role because Japan is probably the nation most sensitive to economic instability.
That said, it's quite possible that economic instability has played the major role in lower fertility rates in Japan over the last 30 years: the memory of the economic horror inflicted on the Japanese since the late eighties and the stagnation since has made a lot of Japanese people of child-bearing age very wary about having more than 1 or 2 children and many don't start families at all.
It's a vicious cycle: lower fertility rates only exacerbate / prolong the economic stagnation which then induces further loss of confidence in the long-term economic outlook of would-be parents.
And the whole world is experiencing the same now.
It's almost like Japan was the test-run for the neo-malthusian / social darwinistic / communistic government/corporate elites, who seem hell-bent on 'population control' in the name of 'sustainability'.
First of all, judging a people's overall behavior in all of history by their behavior at the times of most difficulty is bull.
Second, that argument would make sense if the fertility rate saw a sharp drop (as the Lost Decade was a significant shift in company behavior). However, the fertility rate was dropping for 20 years before the crash.
http://www.un.org/esa/population/public … /japan.pdf
Explanation?
Let's go with a more comparable counterexample (only just thought of it): Japan. In Japan, the business culture is trained such that if you are hired by a company, the assumption is that you're in that company for life. If you screw up, the employer comes to you to apologize for not providing you the resources to do your job. Japan is probably the best example in the world of a developed nation that provides employees economic stability. And yet... their fertility rate is 1.4 (by comparison, the US fertility rate is 1.9, and the US has at-will employment). Explanation?
Edit: Also...
Also, even in such late stage of societal collapses where there is still >2 fertility rates, it might be because children are seen as commodities: labor, or, in extreme cases, food.
That's possibly the most racist thing I've read in this forum in a while, and the US just elected Trump president. And no, I'm not just talking about the idea of cannibalism. Cannibalism during a short-term famine is one thing. Parents choosing to raise a child specifically to be used as food isn't even a remotely efficient use of food. I'd suggest you provide some proof on this one.
It's not specific policies but sociological facts and connecting the dots:
In western nations, people tend to have fewer children regardless of being in the lower class or middle class or even upper middle income / wealth levels. So it's not simply about income or wealth. People are making enough to raise children, but still aren't. The issue isn't money, but, rather, job security: a person's sense of confidence in their future prospect to maintain the stable-enough income / wealth once they get it is the issue.
So why haven't you moved to one of those bastions of economic stability that have high fertility rates like Somalia, South Sudan, or Afghanistan? Because those are the places at the top of fertility rates. Are you saying the average person in Somalia is having children because they're that secure about their $600 GDP per capita? I found exactly zero countries in the top 20 fertility rate countries with a GDP per capita above $10,000 (Equatorial Guinea was the first above $10,000 per capita GDP the 23rd nation in fertility). Moreover, a disproportionate amount of the high-fertility rate countries are not just poor, but in the $1-3 per day GDP per capita range. At this range, price changes that are so small we barely notice them (for example a 5% increase in the price of grain) could easily knock millions of people into starvation.
Are you really saying they're economically stable, as evidenced by their high fertility rate? Or maybe there's an alternate cause of high/low fertility rates that you're ignoring to fit your own theory?
... So were you going to point out the specific policies that are causing the infertility in these various countries?
The Great Eye wrote:How are totalitarian regimes causing this reduction in population? Specific policies should be easy to cite since they would have to be public and pervasive enough to influence the choices of nearly every couple in their respective nations. (Note: Besides China's One-Child Policy. That one's obvious, and the Chinese government has made it very overt that they have had a policy goal of reducing population growth).
First of all, what regimes do you think aren't 'totalitarian'?
Let's go with what you refer to as "western nations" (presumably the US, Canada, and various western European nations). Hell, let's hurl Japan into the mix too because they also have a population growth problem. This also means there's no way in hell I'm defending Russia as "not totalitarian."
How are totalitarian regimes causing this reduction in population? Specific policies should be easy to cite since they would have to be public and pervasive enough to influence (though not necessarily dictate) the choices of nearly every couple in their respective nations. (Note: Besides China's One-Child Policy. That one's obvious, and the Chinese government has made it very overt that they have had a policy goal of reducing population growth).
"It is a concept" and "it is currently in effect" are two very different things. I questioned the latter. You are now trying to prove the former, which wasn't being argued.
EDIT: I see you have interpreted "Sure. It could be a thing" as meaning "de facto martial law may be a concept." That was not my intent. My intent with that sentence was a reply to your last sentence:
You said:
"De facto martial rule could be in-force regardless of any systemic violations of said fancy documents."
Me:
"Sure. It could be a thing." (As in... I am agreeing that de facto martial rule could be in force regardless of any systematic violations of said fancy documents.")
Continuing my quote:
"Now provide proof of it if you're going to hold onto the theory that it's currently a thing..."
That is... provide proof that de facto martial rule is currently in effect.... not that it's a concept people talk/write about. This interpretation is substantiated by the rest of the sentence...
"...keeping in mind that "violations of constitutions," as you've just granted... doesn't necessarily mean martial rule is in effect."
Notice the end clarifier of my intent. That should have made it very clear that I was saying "provide evidence we are currently in a state of de facto martial rule..."
So you're saying, Zarf, that just because there is a prevalence for systemic violations of western nations' constitutions, bills of rights, charters of rights, etc. this does not mean de facto martial rule is in-force. Okay. I'll grant you that.
De facto martial rule could be in-force regardless of any systemic violations of said fancy documents.
Sure. It could be a thing. Now provide proof of it if you're going to hold onto the theory that it's currently a thing... keeping in mind that "violations of constitutions," as you've just granted... doesn't necessarily mean martial rule is in effect.
twistedpuppet wrote:Xeno wrote:Here's an example of 'martial rule' that is probably being implemented de facto, regardless of 'constitutionality' or 'legality':
A member of parliament's office which might be deemed by intelligence services to be inadequately secured by the parliamentary member's party and / or civil authorities would probably have 'covert' security provided 'de facto' by that nation's military with or without the parliamentary member, government, or any civil authority being made aware of such, and certainly without the public being informed of such.
There are countless other probable examples of such 'martial rule' being implemented.
We're not under defacto martial rule.
If not, then why all the systemic violations of western nations' constitutions, bills of rights, charters of rights, etc.?
Because law is complicated? This is a false dichotomy. There is absolutely no reason that a nation cannot be run by normal people who simply have different interpretations of what and is what not encompassed under various issues... without some shadow government behind it.
Why the violations (violations which you have not cited, incidentally, and thus which provide absolutely no capability for people to analyze the issues)? Because people are individuals.
I kind of burst into tears trying to understand the argument in the Trumpspeak pile. ![]()
If you think I should 'seek help' you must think the same of Trump.
Yep! I didn't vote for the guy. ![]()
If you didn't notice, I was giving what could be characterized as perfectly reasonable responses until the moment Trumpspeak happened. ![]()
To be clear, my problem was with the fact that I had to try and decipher an argument from Trumpspeak. Nothing more, and I apologize for any indication of otherwise.
Seek help.
It used to be that welfare took about 20 minutes to update the welfare research outputs. During that time, the game was 100% inaccessible.
However, the process has been improved since then. I'm not sure how long the downtime is... if it even exists anymore. However, whatever it is, it's much less than it was 10 years ago. Depending on the server stress created, it might not be unreasonable to modify welfare research to update every tick nowadays.
The Great Eye wrote:If only the United States had some sort of entity that was specifically tasked with ruling on constitutional ambiguities. Like... some sort of... court... whose opinion was considered... supreme... in constitutional matters.
You left out the rest of my post, which is critical to the point:
I like pie wrote:This very quickly devolves into a confusing semantic soup. In reality there is a threshold where a "good enough" interpretation is good enough, even if potentially imperfect.
Even the Supreme Court can only make a "good enough" interpretation. Ambiguity to some degree is unavoidable, and the more significant question here isn't one of interpretation or technicalities, it's the question of process.
As in: ok, some people think something questionable may have happened. So what do they actually do about it?
The point still stands. The US has established procedure on this.
You'd need a lawyer and a relevant case.
The Supreme Court only makes rulings on constitutional cases as a result of a case occurring and being appealed to them. You would need to first find a case somewhere in which this issue becomes a relevant legal point. You would have to argue the point in court, and upon losing the initial case (because generally, lower courts don't like to make far-reaching points of law), you'll appeal it to higher courts. Although you would definitely be heard in your jurisdiction's relevant appeals court, the Supreme Court has one major barrier to hearing cases: overload. They get a couple tens of thousands of appeal requests every year, and only have time to hear a couple dozen... so they tend to hear only ones with the most important (not necessarily controversial) constitutional issues.
It's entirely possible to make those types of challenges in the current, clearly spelled out system. You're worrying about ambiguities in a system you'd know about if you forked over the $300/hour (or at least paid attention during government class). ![]()
I Like Pie wrote:My question to you would be: how would you intend to take action on this if you wanted to pursue raising the issue and possibly getting it resolved by a higher authority?
I would lobby a senator or whoever - whoever it is that can get the Supreme Court to make a ruling on it.
You'd need a lawyer and a relevant case.
The Supreme Court only makes rulings on constitutional cases as a result of a case occurring and being appealed to them. You would need to first find a case somewhere in which this issue becomes a relevant legal point. You would have to argue the point in court, and upon losing the initial case (because generally, lower courts don't like to make far-reaching points of law), you'll appeal it to higher courts. Although you would definitely be heard in your jurisdiction's relevant appeals court, the Supreme Court has one major barrier to hearing cases: overload. They get a couple tens of thousands of appeal requests every year, and only have time to hear a couple dozen... so they tend to hear only ones with the most important (not necessarily controversial) constitutional issues.
Why do I say this?
Zarf wrote:I'm pretty sure there's a good argument that the framers would not want a person who was elected through the democratic process subsequently unable to carry out their duties as president because they were five minutes late on being sworn in [...]
I could just as easily argue that the framers of the 20th amendment were 'strict' about the noon hand-over (and oaths finished before then) for a good reason: they thought that the peaceful transfer of power was so important to preserving the Republic that even the merest HINT that the transfer of power was not to be handed-over peacefully was deemed sufficient grounds for the automatic implementation of martial law to prevent a coup.
Moreover, it might have been deemed irrelevant what any reason there might be for the oaths not to have be properly completed on time, and that the very fact that the oaths were not properly completed on time should be perceived a possible threat to the peaceful transference of power and thus the survival of the Republic itself, a threat to be met instantaneously at 12:00 noon with the full force of the US military by an instantaneous, automatic implementation of martial law.
... because the funniest thing I'll end up doing all year will be reading the Supreme Court's response to this argument. This is like Bradshaw v. Unity Marine Corp. or Gerald Mayo v. Satan and his Staff material! ![]()
How the hell are you equating "five minutes late" with "shadow lizard government"?
Xeno wrote:Those employed in all government departments, members of the executive, judicial, and legislative branches alike, should ALL take their oaths to abide by and protect the constitution seriously, and if there is any constitutional ambiguity at all (even in a seemingly slight technical matter), the appropriate authorities (the supreme court / congress / senate) should look into the matter and make a ruling on it, in my opinion.
This is a valid opinion, but the tricky part is that even saying "any constitutional ambiguity" is a matter left to interpretation. If you abstract far enough this ends up being an argument less about the constitution and more about deciphering the intent of language itself.
Who defines "constitutional ambiguity"? By what means do they define it and is there any ambiguity within those means? If so, what entity rules on the definition of those means and by what means do they make such a ruling? Who defines those means of the means? Ad infinitum.
If only the United States had some sort of entity that was specifically tasked with ruling on constitutional ambiguities. Like... some sort of... court... whose opinion was considered... supreme... in constitutional matters.
[EDIT: SCRATCH ALL THAT.]
No accusation. It's a legitimate argument.
When dealing with the constitution, there have historically been two different modes of thinking prevalent in the US: strict and loose constructionists. Strict constructionism is the legal philosophy that argues the words and phrases in the Constitution are to be interpreted in their most literal sense. Think Antonio Scalia here. Loose constructionism, in contrast, interprets the constitution according to the spirit of the law more than the letter of the law. Ruth Bader Ginsberg would be a solid "look at this one" for what we're looking at here. Although contemporary politics suggests that strict constructionism is generally associated with conservative philosophical politics and loose constructionism with liberal politics, it's not always the case. But I digress.
There is one simple reason I bring this up: In over 200 years of governance, there has never been a conclusive decision on which interpretation is the end-all proper mode of understanding the Constitution. Hell... the Supreme Court case that even allowed courts to look into constitutional matters was a bit of a stretch... very "loose constructionist"-y. So if you're relying solely on a strict interpretation of the Constitution and saying "because it doesn't fit that, it's wrong," you're not doing all the homework required to assert a thing is unconstitutional.
This debate strikes me as a 100% "spirit of the law vs. letter of the law" debate... because there's no way in hell the two are working together this time. I'm pretty sure there's a good argument that the framers would not want a person who was elected through the democratic process subsequently unable to carry out their duties as president because they were five minutes late on being sworn in, as long as said person did not attempt to exercise any authority as president (i.e., signing bills) before taking the oath of office. Two important problems occur with the strict interpretation:
1: It would render candidates invalid due to delays that happen in everyday life. People are late for things. It's not foreseen, and it's not expected, although it's a common occurrence.
2: There is no reversibility. If the noon deadline is missed... it's gone forever, so there's no way anyone can go back and fix the mistake.
Combined, that puts the government in an odd situation where if people can force a delay in the oath (for example, through spontaneous security threats), people conducting illegal activity can permanently invalidate an individual who has been elected to office, and could subsequently perform that duty in office if not for the interference whose only result is invalidation by missing an arbitrary deadline.
No, there's no way in hell that interpretation would stand up in any court. ![]()
Since when was it ever universally agreed upon that strict constructionism of the constitution was the universally accepted interpretation?
Please define the following terms, as used in your post:
1: Civilization
2: Totalitarianism
3: "Societal collapse"
Also, link to the wikipedia article you're referring to?
Just for clarification, the morale formula ONLY factors in relative player size, relative family size, and relative family NW. Relative player NW is NOT a factor.
*sigh*
Easily the most comprehensive and debate-starting post about the US election this election cycle.....
... and it was in the Community thread, so nobody who would be likely to respond did respond until after the election was over. Forum topics: not just for decoration.
Moved -> Politics
Imperial Forum → Posts by The Great Eye
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