[PW2] PICKLE ARMY,
Do you have any basis for the statement that the term "evil" is intended to dehumanize? It's had secular usage for centuries. Please advise.
[TI] Primo,
There's no evidence that his death camps were a late idea as his syphilis rotted his brain. There's plenty of evidence that he intended such things pretty early, which is obvious because he certainly didn't wait to get started.
You ignored my question regarding the basis for your discrimination between Hitler and Stalin. Hit a nerve, did I? Aren't those the best kinds of questions to respond to?
I'm disappointed. No wonder international banks are taking over the world. Even on a discussion forum, humanity is too sheep-like to respond to topics it brings up. Oooo scary, talking about our own ideas! Let's post to a forum with that purpose and then awkwardly refuse to discuss what we bring up! What dysfunction.
Justinian I,
All of language is a social construct. You're a real master of the obvious. The question in this thread is open to interpretation via religious or secular interpretation. That language is language is not exactly an insightful observation. ~Pw 32~ Random Hero similarly seems to lack understanding of language. He says there's "no such thing as evil," disregarding the fact that it can be defined in different ways, commonly including secular usage of late.
We could define 'evil' in all kinds of common-usage ways, as it has frequently been for centuries. What do you know, this renders all of your trying-too-hard philosophical conclusions of evil's non-existence because of religious roots ignorant and silly.
[I wish I could obey forum rules]