I would like this to be a discussion on the constitutionality of regressive taxes in various countries.  My argument is that the only way a sales tax should be considered constitutional is if there is a direct correlation between how much WEALTH a person has (not their income) and their spending.  In other words, if the rich really do spend more per capita, regressive taxes MIGHT be constitutional.  If NOT, then my argument is they are (or at least should be) considered unconstitutional.